I'm working on the lessons and I'm having a difficult time with some of the different questions.
I understand "man" = what Then "a man" = who (although this seems confusing since "man" is in there and it seems like it would be a conjunction to the word 'what') Then there is "amman" = why (listed as 'for what' which makes more sense to me than 'a man' for who) Then there is "am man theled" = for what purpose (I'm not sure why this one has 'am' instead of 'a' or why it is two words instead of one like 'amman')
The later three all seem to be pronounced the same way to me. So how do you differentiate these in verbal communications? If I hear someone say any of these, how can I tell which one they mean?
An example would be: A man sa? = who is that? Amman sa? = why is that? This could be very confusing.
The 'am' in 'amman' and 'am man theled' comes from the preposition an = to/for. It becomes am due to nasal mutation. So am man theled = for what intention, purpose.
The idea of using 'a man' for 'who' comes from the creator of quite an old course called Pedin Edhellen - I will try and make time today and edit this lesson, as we should really be using Man for both 'what' and 'who', and as you say 'a man' looks more like 'and what' than anything else.
Hopefully once I've done that it will alleviate any confusion for you!
Len suilon! I actually have something I'm not quite sure of in Lesson 4, as well. I was under the impression that "ada" was a familiar way of referring to a father, but the sample sentence has it paired with "lîn." I would have expected it to go with "gîn," but that's more based on what I've seen in fandom usage, which isn't always the most accurate, I'm well aware. So, well, yeah.
Thank you for all your hard work in making Sindarin accessible. <3
If I remember correctly, in the Hobbit, the guard sent King Thranduil's message to Legolas saying he had banished Tauriel. The guard said in Sindarin: "... ada lîn..." So, in this case, it was formal because the guard was referring to the king. Is it right?